Misuse of 'anti-Semitic'
Reader comment on: The Professor's Paranoia
in response to reader comment: Anti-Semitism
Submitted by Ben Abraham (United States), Apr 23, 2009 01:37
Atheist's use of the term, 'anti-Semitism', purports to show that one cannot be anti-Semitic if they are anti-Jewish/Zionist but not anti-Arab because Arabs are Semites. This is, in itself, an anti-Semitic perversion ot the term.
'Anti-Semite', 'anti-Semitic' and similar terms have been used exclusively and specifically to denote 'anti-Jewish' for over a century-and-a-half. It originated in Germany...not much of a surprise looking back as later historical events unfolded. To redefine the term for one's own purposes is, at best, ignorant; at worst it is malicious. Based on reading the body of that post, I do not believe Athiest is ignorant.
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